Sorry if this has been answered elsewhere, but I have been looking through the long strangle tutorial and maybe it's my knowledge of options that's the problem here, but I was under the impression that if you buy and OTM put and it expires in the money, then you essentially are given the difference between the strike and the underlying at expiration. In the backtest, that would have been 03/20/2020. It says also that 4 orders were placed:


+2020-02-03 09:31:00     GOOG 200320C01500000    Buy      Market    Fill: $45.00 USD 1 Filled 


+2020-02-03 09:31:00     GOOG 200320P01435000    Buy      Market    Fill: $45.10 USD 1Filled 


+2020-03-20 16:00:00     GOOG 200320P01435000    Sell       Option Exercise  Fill: $1,435.00 USD

-1FilledOption Expired - Automatic Exercise - Option Exercise


+2020-03-20 16:00:00GOOG 200320C01500000         Sell       Option Exercise Fill: $1,500.00 USD

-1FilledOption Expired - OTM


Since no orders were placed after 03/20/2020, shouldn't the equity curve be flat afterwards if no trades are made? I figure if I buy an otm call and it expires ITM, I essentially get to buy the option on sale. But if it's a put, is it purchased back after I sell it at a premium? If I only want to trade options and never really touch any stocks, is that doable? I am new here so sorry if I made simple mistakes.